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Ta có: (+) (1/32)^7 = [(1/2)^5]^7 =(1/2)^35
(+) (1/16)^9= [(1/2)^4]^9 =(1/2)^36
Vì 35 <36
=> (1/2)^35 > (1/2)^36
=> (1/32)^7 > (1/16)^9
B = 1/1.2 + 1/3.4 + 1/5.6 + ... + 1/59.60
B = 1 - 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 + 1/5 - 1/6 + ... + 1/59 - 1/60
B = (1 + 1/3 + 1/5 + ... + 1/59) - (1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + ... + 1/60)
B = (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + ... + 1/59 + 1/60) - 2.(1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + ... + 1/60)
B = (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + ... + 1/59 + 1/60) - (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/30)
B = 1/31 + 1/32 + 1/33 + ... + 1/60 = A
=> B = A
ta có: Lớn nhất của A là:\(\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{31}+...+\frac{1}{31}\)(30 phân số)
=30/31
B=1-\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{59}-\frac{1}{60}\)\(=\left(1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}+...+\frac{1}{59}\right)-\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{60}\right)\)
Bé nhất của của B là :\(\left(1+1+...+1\right)-\left(\frac{1}{60}+\frac{1}{60}+...+\frac{1}{60}\right)\)
\(=30-\frac{30}{60}\)
=>B>A
\(B=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{3.4}+...+\frac{1}{59.60}\)
\(B=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{59}-\frac{1}{60}\)
\(B=\left(1+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{59}\right)-\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{60}\right)\)
\(B=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+..+\frac{1}{59}+\frac{1}{60}\right)-2.\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(B=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{50}\right)-\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{30}\right)\)
\(B=\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{33}+...+\frac{1}{60}=A\)
\(A=\frac{2003\cdot2004-1}{2003\cdot2004}=1-\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}\)
\(B=\frac{2004\cdot2005-1}{2004\cdot2005}=1-\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}\)
Vì 1 = 1 và \(\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}>\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}\) nên A > B
Vậy A > B
Chắc sai =))
\(A=\frac{2003\cdot2004-1}{2003\cdot2004}=\frac{2003\cdot2004}{2003\cdot2004}-\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}=1-\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}\)
\(B=\frac{2004\cdot2005-1}{2004\cdot2005}=\frac{2004\cdot2005}{2004\cdot2005}-\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}=1-\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}\)
có : \(\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}>\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}\)
\(\Rightarrow1-\frac{1}{2003\cdot2004}< 1-\frac{1}{2004\cdot2005}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< B\)
Ta có : \(\frac{2003.2004-1}{2003.2004}=\frac{2003.2004}{2003.2004}-\frac{1}{2003.2004}=1-\frac{1}{2003.2004}\)
\(\frac{2004.2005-1}{2004.2005}=\frac{2004.2005}{2004.2005}-\frac{1}{2004.2005}=1-\frac{1}{2004.2005}\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{2003.2004}>\frac{1}{2004.2005}\)
Nên : \(\frac{2003.2004-1}{2003.2004}< \frac{2004.2005-1}{2004.2005}\)
Y = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{32}\)
= \(1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{8}-\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{16}-\frac{1}{32}=1-\frac{1}{32}=\frac{31}{32}\)
=> Y = \(\frac{31}{32}=1-\frac{1}{32}\) < \(1-\frac{1}{2004}=\frac{2003}{2004}\) = B
Lời giải:
$A=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{32}$
$\Rightarrow 2A=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{16}$
$\Rightarrow A=2A-A=1-\frac{1}{32}< 1-\frac{1}{2004}$
Hay $A< \frac{2003}{2004}$
Hay $A< B$