Hãy nhập câu hỏi của bạn vào đây, nếu là tài khoản VIP, bạn sẽ được ưu tiên trả lời.
b) \(\dfrac{5-\dfrac{5}{3}+\dfrac{5}{9}-\dfrac{5}{27}}{8-\dfrac{8}{3}+\dfrac{8}{9}-\dfrac{8}{27}}=\dfrac{5\left(1-\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{9}-\dfrac{1}{27}\right)}{8\left(1-\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{9}-\dfrac{1}{27}\right)}=\dfrac{5}{8}\)
Vì không có thời gian nên mình chỉ làm câu khó nhất thôi, tick mình nhé
a, \(A-B=\frac{3}{8^3}+\frac{7}{8^4}-\frac{7}{8^3}-\frac{3}{8^4}==\left(\frac{7}{8^4}-\frac{3}{8^4}\right)-\left(\frac{7}{8^3}-\frac{3}{8^3}\right)=\frac{4}{8^4}-\frac{4}{8^3}< 0\)
Vậy A < B
b, \(A=\frac{10^7+5}{10^7-8}=\frac{10^7-8+13}{10^7-8}=1+\frac{13}{10^7-8}\)
\(B=\frac{10^8+6}{10^8-7}=\frac{10^8-7+13}{10^8-7}=1+\frac{13}{10^8-7}\)
Vì \(10^7-8< 10^8-7\Rightarrow\frac{1}{10^7-8}>\frac{1}{10^8-7}\Rightarrow\frac{13}{10^7-8}>\frac{13}{10^8-7}\Rightarrow A>B\)
c,Áp dụng nếu \(\frac{a}{b}>1\Rightarrow\frac{a}{b}>\frac{a+n}{a+n}\) có:
\(B=\frac{10^{1993}+1}{10^{1992}+1}>\frac{10^{1993}+1+9}{10^{1992}+1+9}=\frac{10^{1993}+10}{10^{1992}+10}=\frac{10\left(10^{1992}+1\right)}{10\left(10^{1991}+1\right)}=\frac{10^{1992}+1}{10^{1991}+1}=A\)
Vậy A < B
a) Giải
Đặt \(M=\dfrac{2}{3}.\dfrac{4}{5}.\dfrac{6}{7}...\dfrac{98}{99}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< A.M\)
hay \(A< \left(\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{3}{4}.\dfrac{5}{6}...\dfrac{99}{100}\right).\left(\dfrac{2}{3}.\dfrac{4}{5}.\dfrac{6}{7}...\dfrac{98}{99}\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow A< \dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{2}{3}.\dfrac{3}{4}.\dfrac{4}{5}.\dfrac{5}{6}.\dfrac{6}{7}...\dfrac{98}{99}.\dfrac{99}{100}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow A< \dfrac{1.2.3.4.5.6...98.99}{2.3.4.5.6.7...99.100}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< \dfrac{1}{100}< \dfrac{1}{10}\)
Vậy \(A< \dfrac{1}{10}\)
Bài 1: Tính tổng 100 số hạng đầu tiên của các dãy sau:
a) \(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{1.2}\\\dfrac{1}{6}=\dfrac{1}{2.3}\\\dfrac{1}{12}=\dfrac{1}{3.4}\\...\end{matrix}\right.\)
Vậy số thứ 100 của dãy là: \(\dfrac{1}{100.101}=\dfrac{1}{10100}\)
Tổng: \(\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{2.3}+\dfrac{1}{3.4}+...+\dfrac{1}{100.101}\)
\(=1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}-\dfrac{1}{101}\)
\(=1-\dfrac{1}{101}\)
\(=\dfrac{100}{101}\)
b) \(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\dfrac{1}{6}=\dfrac{1}{\left(5.0+1\right)\left(5.1+1\right)}\\\dfrac{1}{66}=\dfrac{1}{\left(5.1+1\right)\left(5.2+1\right)}\\\dfrac{1}{176}=\dfrac{1}{\left(5.2+1\right)\left(5.3+1\right)}\\...\end{matrix}\right.\)
Vậy số thứ 100 của dãy là: \(\dfrac{1}{\left(5.99+1\right)\left(5.100+1\right)}=\dfrac{1}{248496}\)
Tổng: \(\dfrac{1}{1.6}+\dfrac{1}{6.11}+\dfrac{1}{11.16}+...+\dfrac{1}{496.501}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}\left(\dfrac{5}{1.6}+\dfrac{5}{6.11}+\dfrac{5}{11.16}+...+\dfrac{5}{496.501}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{6}-\dfrac{1}{11}+\dfrac{1}{11}-\dfrac{1}{16}+...+\dfrac{1}{496}-\dfrac{1}{501}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{501}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}.\dfrac{500}{501}\)
\(=\dfrac{100}{501}\)
Bài 2: Tính:
a) \(A=\dfrac{1+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{97}+\dfrac{1}{99}}{\dfrac{1}{1.99}+\dfrac{1}{3.97}+\dfrac{1}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{1}{97.3}+\dfrac{1}{99.1}}\)
\(A=\dfrac{\left(1+\dfrac{1}{99}\right)+\left(\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{97}\right)+...+\left(\dfrac{1}{49}+\dfrac{1}{51}\right)}{2\left(\dfrac{1}{1.99}+\dfrac{1}{3.97}+\dfrac{1}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.51}\right)}\)
\(A=\dfrac{\dfrac{100}{1.99}+\dfrac{100}{3.97}+\dfrac{100}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{100}{49.51}}{2\left(\dfrac{1}{1.99}+\dfrac{1}{3.97}+\dfrac{1}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.51}\right)}\)
\(A=\dfrac{100\left(\dfrac{1}{1.99}+\dfrac{1}{3.97}+\dfrac{1}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.51}\right)}{2\left(\dfrac{1}{1.99}+\dfrac{1}{3.97}+\dfrac{1}{5.95}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.51}\right)}\)
\(\Rightarrow A=\dfrac{100}{2}=50\)
9: \(=1-\dfrac{1}{99}+1-\dfrac{1}{100}+\dfrac{100}{101}\cdot\dfrac{1-4+3}{12}=2-\dfrac{199}{9900}=\dfrac{19601}{9900}\)
10: \(=\left(\dfrac{78}{79}+\dfrac{79}{80}+\dfrac{80}{81}\right)\cdot\dfrac{6+5+9-20}{30}=0\)
\(A=\dfrac{1}{1}-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{99}-\dfrac{1}{100}\)
\(A=\left(\dfrac{1}{1}+\dfrac{1}{2}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}\right)-2\cdot\dfrac{1}{2}-2\cdot\dfrac{1}{4}-...-2\cdot\dfrac{1}{100}\)
\(A=\left(\dfrac{1}{1}+\dfrac{1}{2}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}\right)-\dfrac{1}{1}-\dfrac{1}{2}-...-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(A=\dfrac{1}{51}+\dfrac{1}{52}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}=B\)
\(\Rightarrow A=B\)
tớ giải chi tiết hơn nhá:
A=\(\dfrac{1}{1}-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{99}-\dfrac{1}{100}\)
A=(\(\dfrac{1}{1}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{99}-\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}\right)\)
A=\(\left(\dfrac{1}{1}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{99}\right)+\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}\right)-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}\right)\)
A=\(\dfrac{1}{51}+\dfrac{1}{52}+...+\dfrac{1}{100}=B\)
Vậy A=B
mọi người thật là nhẫn tâm
chẳng ai giúp mk
TRỜI ƠI!!! AI MS LÀ BN BÈ THỰC SỰ
Ko cs đứa mô trả lời chứ chi
Loại bn bè vs mấy ng chỉ là giả tạo thôi
Vì mỗi thừa số ( phân số ) trong tích D đều > 1
=> tích D < 1 < 10
=> D < 10