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Ta có :
\(\frac{392-x}{32}+\frac{390-x}{34}+\frac{388-x}{36}+\frac{386-x}{38}+\frac{384-x}{40}=-5\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{392-x}{32}+1\right)+\left(\frac{390-x}{34}+1\right)+\left(\frac{388-x}{36}+1\right)+\left(\frac{386-x}{38}+1\right)+\left(\frac{384-x}{40}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{424-x}{32}+\frac{424-x}{34}+\frac{424-x}{36}+\frac{424-x}{38}+\frac{424-x}{40}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(424-x\right)\left(\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{34}+\frac{1}{36}+\frac{1}{38}+\frac{1}{40}\right)=0\)
Mà : \(\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{34}+\frac{1}{36}+\frac{1}{38}+\frac{1}{40}\ne0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow424-x=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=424\)
Vậy x = 424
a, Ta có : \(\frac{392-x}{32}+\frac{390-x}{34}+\frac{388-x}{36}+\frac{386-x}{38}+\frac{384-x}{40}=-5\)
=> \(\frac{392-x}{32}+1+\frac{390-x}{34}+1+\frac{388-x}{36}+1+\frac{386-x}{38}+1+\frac{384-x}{40}+1=-5+5=0\)
=> \(\frac{424-x}{32}+\frac{424-x}{34}+\frac{424-x}{36}+\frac{424-x}{38}+\frac{424-x}{40}=0\)
=> \(\left(424-x\right)\left(\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{34}+\frac{1}{36}+\frac{1}{38}+\frac{1}{40}\right)=0\)
=> \(424-x=0\)
=> \(x=424\)
Vậy phương trình có nghiệm là x = 424 .
b, Ta có : \(\frac{x+1}{2014}+\frac{x+3}{2012}=\frac{x+5}{2010}+\frac{x+6}{2009}\)
=> \(\frac{x+1}{2014}+1+\frac{x+3}{2012}+1=\frac{x+5}{2010}+1+\frac{x+6}{2009}+1\)
=> \(\frac{x+2015}{2014}+\frac{x+2015}{2012}=\frac{x+2015}{2010}+\frac{x+2015}{2009}\)
=> \(\frac{x+2015}{2014}+\frac{x+2015}{2012}-\frac{x+2015}{2010}-\frac{x+2015}{2009}=0\)
=> \(\left(x+2015\right)\left(\frac{1}{2014}+\frac{1}{2012}-\frac{1}{2010}-\frac{1}{2009}\right)=0\)
=> \(x+2015=0\)
=> \(x=-2015\)
Vậy phương trình có nghiệm là x = -2015 .
a) \(\frac{392-x}{32}+\frac{390-x}{34}+\frac{388-x}{36}+\frac{386-x}{38}+\frac{384-x}{40}=-5\)
<=> \(\frac{392-x}{32}+1+\frac{390-x}{34}+1+\frac{388-x}{36}+1+\frac{386-x}{38}+1+\frac{384-x}{40}=0\)
<=> \(\frac{424-x}{32}+\frac{424-x}{34}+\frac{424-x}{36}+\frac{424-x}{40}=0\)
<=> \(\left(424-x\right)\left(\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{34}+\frac{1}{36}+\frac{1}{40}\right)=0\)
<=> 424 - x = 0
<=> x = 424
Vậy S = {424}
b) \(\frac{x+1}{2014}+\frac{x+3}{2012}=\frac{x+5}{2010}+\frac{x+6}{2009}\)
<=> \(\left(\frac{x+1}{2014}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+3}{2012}+1\right)=\left(\frac{x+5}{2010}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+6}{2009}+1\right)\)
<=> \(\frac{x+2015}{2014}+\frac{x+2015}{2012}=\frac{x+2015}{2010}+\frac{x+2015}{2009}\)
<=> \(\left(x+2015\right)\left(\frac{1}{2014}+\frac{1}{2012}-\frac{1}{2010}-\frac{1}{2009}\right)=0\)
<=> x + 2015 = 0
<=> x= -2015
Vậy S = {-2015}
a) \(\dfrac{x+43}{57}+\dfrac{x+46}{54}=\dfrac{x+49}{51}+\dfrac{x+52}{48}\)
\(\left(\dfrac{x+43}{57}+1\right)+\left(\dfrac{x+46}{54}+1\right)=\left(\dfrac{x+49}{51}+1\right)+\left(\dfrac{x+52}{48}\right)\)
\(\dfrac{x+43+57}{57}+\dfrac{x+46+54}{54}-\dfrac{x+49+51}{51}-\dfrac{x+52+48}{48}=0\)
\(\dfrac{x+100}{57}+\dfrac{x+100}{54}-\dfrac{x+100}{51}-\dfrac{x+100}{48}=0\)
\(\left(x+100\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{57}+\dfrac{1}{54}-\dfrac{1}{51}-\dfrac{1}{48}\right)=0\)
Mà \(\dfrac{1}{57}+\dfrac{1}{54}-\dfrac{1}{51}-\dfrac{1}{48}\ne0\)
Nên: \(x+100=0\)
\(x=-100\)
Câu x ) là bằng - 5 nhé mấy bạn. Làm giúp mình tất cả nhé ! Mình cảm ơn nhiều lắm !
Giải:
\(\dfrac{x-2837}{824}+\dfrac{x-2813}{800}+\dfrac{x-1979}{34}+\dfrac{x-1991}{22}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-2837}{824}+\dfrac{x-2813}{800}+\dfrac{x-1979}{34}+\dfrac{x-1991}{22}+0=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-2837}{824}+\dfrac{x-2813}{800}+\dfrac{x-1979}{34}+\dfrac{x-1991}{22}+2-2=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-2837}{824}+1+\dfrac{x-2813}{800}+1+\dfrac{x-1979}{34}-1+\dfrac{x-1991}{22}-1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-2837+824}{824}+\dfrac{x-2813+800}{800}+\dfrac{x-1979-34}{34}+\dfrac{x-1991-22}{22}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-2013}{824}+\dfrac{x-2013}{800}+\dfrac{x-2013}{34}+\dfrac{x-2013}{22}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-2013\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{824}+\dfrac{1}{800}+\dfrac{1}{34}+\dfrac{1}{22}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\dfrac{1}{824}+\dfrac{1}{800}+\dfrac{1}{34}+\dfrac{1}{22}\ne0\)
Nên \(x-2013=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=2013\)
Vậy \(x=2013\)
Akai HarumaNguyễn Thanh HằngNguyễn NamRibi Nkok NgokRibi Nkok Ngoklê thị hương giangPhạm Hoàng Giang
Hoàng Thị Ngọc AnhNguyễn Huy Tú
\(\dfrac{x-90}{10}+\dfrac{x-76}{12}=\dfrac{x-58}{14}+\dfrac{x-36}{16}+\dfrac{x-15}{17}=15\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{x-90}{10}-1\right)+\left(\dfrac{x-76}{12}-2\right)=\left(\dfrac{x-58}{14}-3\right)+\left(\dfrac{x-36}{16}-4\right)+\left(\dfrac{x-15}{17}-5\right)\)\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x-100}{10}+\dfrac{x-100}{12}=\dfrac{x-100}{14}+\dfrac{x-100}{16}+\dfrac{x-100}{17}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-100\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{10}+\dfrac{1}{12}-\dfrac{1}{14}-\dfrac{1}{16}-\dfrac{1}{17}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x-100=0\)
\(\Rightarrow x=100\)
Vậy \(S=\left\{100\right\}\)
1a)\(\dfrac{x-90}{10}-1+\dfrac{x-76}{12}-2+\dfrac{x-58}{14}-3+\dfrac{x-36}{16}-4+\dfrac{x-15}{17}-5=0\)
=> \(\dfrac{x-100}{10}+\dfrac{x-100}{12}+\dfrac{x-100}{14}+\dfrac{x-100}{16}+\dfrac{x-100}{17}=0\)
=>\(\left(x-100\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{10}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{14}+\dfrac{1}{16}+\dfrac{1}{17}\right)=0\)
=> x=100( vi \(\dfrac{1}{10}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{14}+\dfrac{1}{16}+\dfrac{1}{17}\ne0\)
b) \(\dfrac{x-5}{2012}-1+\dfrac{x-4}{2013}-1=\dfrac{x-3}{2014}-1+\dfrac{x-2}{2015}-1\)
=> \(\dfrac{x-2017}{2012}+\dfrac{x-2017}{2013}-\dfrac{x-2017}{2014}-\dfrac{x-2017}{2015}=0\)
=>(x-2017).\(\left(\dfrac{1}{2012}+\dfrac{1}{2013}-\dfrac{1}{2014}-\dfrac{1}{2015}\right)=0\)
=> x=2015(vi .....................................................≠0)
2)
\(\frac{x-3}{2011}+\frac{x-5}{2009}+\frac{x-7}{2007}+\frac{x-9}{2005}=4\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{x-3}{2011}-1\right)+\left(\frac{x-5}{2009}-1\right)+\left(\frac{x-7}{2007}-1\right)+\left(\frac{x-9}{2005}-1\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-2014}{2011}+\frac{x-2014}{2009}+\frac{x-2014}{2007}+\frac{x-2014}{2005}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-2014\right)\left(\frac{1}{2011}+\frac{1}{2009}+\frac{1}{2007}+\frac{1}{2005}\right)=0\)
|________________A________________|
Do A > 0
nên x - 2014 = 0
<=> x = 2014
ta có : \(\dfrac{392-x}{32}+\dfrac{390-x}{34}+\dfrac{388-x}{36}+\dfrac{386-x}{38}\)+\(\dfrac{384-x}{40}=-5\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\dfrac{392-x}{32}+1+\dfrac{390-x}{34}+1+\dfrac{388-x}{36}+1\)+\(\dfrac{384-x}{40}+1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\dfrac{424-x}{32}+\dfrac{424-x}{34}+\dfrac{424-x}{36}+\dfrac{424-x}{38}+\dfrac{424-x}{40}=0\)\(\Leftrightarrow\left(424-x\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{32}+\dfrac{1}{34}+\dfrac{1}{36}+\dfrac{1}{38}+\dfrac{1}{40}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=424\)(vì \(\dfrac{1}{32}+\dfrac{1}{34}+\dfrac{1}{36}+\dfrac{1}{38}+\dfrac{1}{40}\ne0\))
Vậy tập nghiệm của phương trình là s=\(\left\{424\right\}\)