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a) \(a_n=\frac{\left(1+n\right).n}{2}\)
\(a_{n+1}=\frac{\left(2+n\right)\left(1+n\right)}{2}\)
b) \(a_n+a_{n+1}=\frac{\left(1+n\right).n}{2}+\frac{\left(2+n\right)\left(1+n\right)}{2}\)
\(=\left(1+n\right)\left(\frac{n}{2}+\frac{2+n}{2}\right)=\left(1+n\right)\left(1+n\right)=\left(1+n\right)^2\) là số chính phương.
Ta có : \(A=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{3.4}+...+\frac{1}{99.100}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{99}-\frac{1}{100}\)
\(=\left(1+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{99}\right)-\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{100}\right)\)
\(=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{99}+\frac{1}{100}\right)-2\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{100}\right)\)
\(=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{99}+\frac{1}{100}\right)-\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(=\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+...+\frac{1}{100}\)
\(B=\frac{2015}{51}+\frac{2015}{52}+...+\frac{2015}{100}\)
\(=2015\left(\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+...+\frac{1}{100}\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow\) \(\frac{B}{A}=\frac{2015\left(\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+...+\frac{1}{100}\right)}{\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+...+\frac{1}{100}}=2015\)
\(\Rightarrow\) \(B⋮A\)
\(3.M=1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{3^{38}}\)
=> \(3M-M=2M=1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{3^{38}}-\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{3^2}-...-\frac{1}{3^{39}}\)
=> \(2M=1-\frac{1}{3^{39}}\)
=> \(M=\frac{1}{2}\left(1-\frac{1}{3^{39}}\right)\)
do \(1-\frac{1}{3^{39}}< 1\)
=> \(\frac{1}{2}\left(1-\frac{1}{3^{39}}\right)< \frac{1}{2}.1=\frac{1}{2}\)
Vay \(M< \frac{1}{2}\)
Chuc bn hoc tot !
1/4×2/6×3/8×4/10×...×14/30×15/32=1/2^x
<=>1/(2×2)×2/(2×3)×...×14/(2×15)×15/2^5=1/2^x
<=>1/2×1/2×...×1/2×1/(2^5)=1/2^x
<=>1/2^19=1/2^x=>x=19
Đề mình không ghi lại nhé.
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1\times2\times3\times4\times...\times14\times15}{4\times6\times10\times...\times30\times32}=\frac{1}{2^x}\)\(\frac{1}{2^x}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1\times2\times3\times4\times...\times14\times15}{2\times4\times6\times8\times10\times...\times30\times32}\)\(=\frac{1}{2^{x+1}}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{2^{15}\times32}=\)\(\frac{1}{2^{x+1}}\)
\(\Rightarrow2^{15}\times2^5=2^{x+1}\)
\(\Rightarrow2^{20}=2^{x+1}\)
\(\Rightarrow x+1=20\Rightarrow x=19\)
Vậy \(x=1\)
Học tốt nhaaa!
\(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+\frac{1}{53}+...+\frac{1}{100}\)
\(\frac{a}{b}=\left(\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{100}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{52}+\frac{1}{99}\right)+...+\left(\frac{1}{75}+\frac{1}{76}\right)\)
\(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{151}{51.100}+\frac{151}{50.99}+...+\frac{151}{75.76}\)
Chọn mẫu chung = 51.52.53...100
Gọi các thừa số phụ lần lượt là: k1; k2; ...; k25
=> \(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{151.\left(k_1+k_2+...+k_{25}\right)}{51.52...100}\)
Do 151 là số nguyên tố mà tích 51.52...100 không chứa thừa số 151 => 51.52....100 không chia hết cho 151
=> đến khi phân số a/b tối giản thì a vẫn chia hết cho 151 (đpcm)
Mik rút gọn cho bn nha
\(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{1}{51.100}+\frac{1}{52.99}+..........+\frac{1}{100.51}\)
\(151.\frac{a}{b}=\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{100}+\frac{1}{52}+\frac{1}{99}+......+\frac{1}{100}+\frac{1}{51}\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(151.\frac{a}{b}\right):2=\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+\frac{1}{53}+.........+\frac{1}{100}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{a}{b}=\frac{2}{151}.\left(\frac{1}{51}+\frac{1}{52}+\frac{1}{53}+.........+\frac{1}{100}\right)\)
Chúc bn hok tốt