đề bài :tìm x
x-6/1998 x-4/2000=x-2000/4 x-1998/6
Hãy nhập câu hỏi của bạn vào đây, nếu là tài khoản VIP, bạn sẽ được ưu tiên trả lời.
\(\dfrac{x-6}{1998}\) + \(\dfrac{x-4}{2000}\) = \(\dfrac{x-2000}{4}\) + \(\dfrac{x-1998}{6}\)
\(\dfrac{x-6}{1998}\) - 1 + \(\dfrac{x-4}{2000}\) - 1 = \(\dfrac{x-2000}{4}\) - 1 + \(\dfrac{x-1998}{6}\) - 1
\(\dfrac{x-6-1998}{1998}\) + \(\dfrac{x-4-2000}{2000}\) = \(\dfrac{x-2000-4}{4}\) + \(\dfrac{x-1998-6}{6}\)
\(\dfrac{x-2004}{1998}\) + \(\dfrac{x-2004}{2000}\) = \(\dfrac{x-2004}{4}\) + \(\dfrac{x-2004}{6}\)
(\(x-2004\)).[\(\dfrac{1}{1998}\) + \(\dfrac{1}{2000}\) - \(\dfrac{1}{4}\) - \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)] = 0
\(x\) - 2004 = 0
\(x\) = 2004
(X -10/1994 -1) + (X-8/1996 - 1) + (X-6/1998 - 1)+ (X-4/2000 - 1) + (X-2/2002 - 1) = (X-2002/2 - 1) + (X-2000/4 - 1) + (X-1998/6 - 1) + (X-1996/8 - 1) + (X-1994/10 - 1)
=> x-2004/1994 + x-2004/1996 + x-2004/1998 + x-2004/2000 + x-2004/2002 = x-2004/2 + x-2004/4 + x-2004/6 + x-2004/8 + x-2004/1994
=> x-2004/1994 + x-2004/1996 + x-2004/1998 + x-2004/2000 + x-2004/2002 - x-2004/2 - x-2004/4 - x-2004/6 - x-2004/8 - x-2004/1994 = 0
=> (x - 2004)(1/994 + 1/1996 + 1/1998 + 1/2000 + 1/2002 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/8) = 0
Mà (1/994 + 1/1996 + 1/1998 + 1/2000 + 1/2002 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/8) \(\ne\)0
=> x - 2004 = 0
=> x = 2004
Vậy x = 2004
\(\left(\frac{x-10}{1994}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-8}{1996}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-6}{1998}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-4}{2000}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-2}{2002}-1\right)\)=\(\left(\frac{x-2002}{2}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-2000}{4}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-1998}{6}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-1996}{8}-1\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{x-1994}{10}-1\right)\)
suy ra \(\frac{x-2004}{1994}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{1996}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{1998}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{2000}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{2002}\)=\(\frac{x-2004}{2}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{4}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{6}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{8}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{10}\)
suy ra \(\frac{x-2004}{1994}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{1996}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{1998}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{2000}\)+\(\frac{x-2004}{2002}\)- \(\frac{x-2004}{2}\)- \(\frac{x-2004}{4}\)- \(\frac{x-2004}{6}\)- \(\frac{x-2004}{8}\)- \(\frac{x-2004}{10}\)=0
suy ra (x-2004) . ( \(\frac{1}{1994}\)+\(\frac{1}{1996}\)+\(\frac{1}{1998}\)+\(\frac{1}{2000}\)+\(\frac{1}{2002}\)-\(\frac{1}{2}\)-\(\frac{1}{4}\)-\(\frac{1}{6}\)- \(\frac{1}{8}\)- \(\frac{1}{10}\))=0
Vì \(\frac{1}{1994}\)+\(\frac{1}{1996}\)+\(\frac{1}{1998}\)+\(\frac{1}{2000}\)+\(\frac{1}{2002}\)-\(\frac{1}{2}\)-\(\frac{1}{4}\)-\(\frac{1}{6}\)- \(\frac{1}{8}\)- \(\frac{1}{10}\) khác 0
nên x-2004=0 suy ra x=2004
a/ (X+1)/35+1+(x+3)/33+1 =(x+5)/31+(x+7)/29+1+1
=>(x+36)/35+(x+36)/33-(x+36)/31-(x+36)/27=0
=>(X+36)(1/35+1/33-1/31-1/29)=0
=> x+36=0(vì c=vế 2 luôn luôn khác 0)
=>x=-36
b/ CMTT câu a
trừ tung phân số cho 1 ta được x=2004
a, Ta có : \(\frac{x-10}{1994}+\frac{x-8}{1996}+\frac{x-6}{1998}+\frac{x-4}{2000}+\frac{x-2}{2002}=\frac{x-2002}{2}+\frac{x-2000}{4}+\frac{x-1998}{6}+\frac{x-1996}{8}+\frac{x-1994}{10}\)
=> \(\frac{x-10}{1994}-1+\frac{x-8}{1996}-1+\frac{x-6}{1998}-1+\frac{x-4}{2000}-1+\frac{x-2}{2002}-1=\frac{x-2002}{2}-1+\frac{x-2000}{4}-1+\frac{x-1998}{6}-1+\frac{x-1996}{8}-1+\frac{x-1994}{10}-1\)
=> \(\frac{x-2004}{1994}+\frac{x-2004}{1996}+\frac{x-2004}{1998}+\frac{x-2004}{2000}\frac{x-2004}{2002}=\frac{x-2004}{2}+\frac{x-2004}{4}+\frac{x-2004}{6}+\frac{x-2004}{8}+\frac{x-2004}{10}\)
=> \(\frac{x-2004}{1994}+\frac{x-2004}{1996}+\frac{x-2004}{1998}+\frac{x-2004}{2000}\frac{x-2004}{2002}-\frac{x-2004}{2}-\frac{x-2004}{4}-\frac{x-2004}{6}-\frac{x-2004}{8}-\frac{x-2004}{10}=0\)
=> \(\left(x-2004\right)\left(\frac{1}{1994}+\frac{1}{1996}+\frac{1}{1998}+\frac{1}{2000}+\frac{1}{2002}-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{8}-\frac{1}{10}=0\right)\)
=> \(x-2004=0\)
=> \(x=2004\)
Vậy phương trình có nghiệm là x = 2004 .
b, Ta có : \(\frac{x-85}{15}+\frac{x-74}{13}+\frac{x-67}{11}+\frac{x-64}{9}=10\)
=> \(\frac{x-85}{15}-1+\frac{x-74}{13}-2+\frac{x-67}{11}-3+\frac{x-64}{9}-4=10-1-2-3-4=0\)
=> \(\frac{x-100}{15}+\frac{x-100}{13}+\frac{x-100}{11}+\frac{x-100}{9}=0\)
=> \(\left(x-100\right)\left(\frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{13}+\frac{1}{11}+\frac{1}{9}\right)=0\)
=> \(x-100=0\)
=> \(x=100\)
Vậy phương trình có nghiệm là x = 100 .
Em nên gõ công thức trực quan để được hỗ trợ tốt nhất nhé